This free Pharmacology Practice Test #10 covers anticoagulants, antiplatelets and thrombolytics: warfarin and vitamin K foods, NSAID interactions, reversal agents, enoxaparin with an epidural catheter, clopidogrel after a coronary stent, alteplase, heparin-to-warfarin overlap, dabigatran capsules, head injury on rivaroxaban and warfarin in pregnancy. Work through 10 timed questions, then check every answer with the full rationales below. No sign-up required.
All 10 Questions With Answers & Rationales
Prefer to work at your own pace? Every question from the timed quiz above is listed here in full. Choose your answer, then tap Show Answer & Rationale to check it.
Question 1: Warfarin and Vitamin K Foods
A client who has started warfarin for atrial fibrillation says, "I love salads and eat spinach and broccoli most days." Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. "You will need to stop eating green leafy vegetables while you take warfarin."
- B. "Keep eating about the same amount of these foods each week, and tell your provider before you make a big change in your diet."
- C. "Eat extra green vegetables on days your INR is high to balance the medication."
- D. "Vegetables do not affect warfarin, so you can eat as much or as little as you like."
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: B. "Keep eating about the same amount of these foods each week, and tell your provider before you make a big change in your diet."
Rationale: Warfarin works by blocking the vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, so vitamin K in food can change its effect. The goal is a consistent intake, not avoidance. When vitamin K intake stays steady, the prescriber can set a warfarin dose that keeps the INR in the client's target range. A sudden increase in leafy greens can lower the INR and raise clot risk; a sudden decrease can raise the INR and bleeding risk. Option A is wrong because cutting out these foods is unnecessary and would itself shift the INR. Option C is wrong because clients should never try to adjust their own INR with food; an abnormal INR is reported to the prescriber, who decides on dose changes. Option D is wrong because vitamin K-rich foods such as spinach, kale, broccoli and collard greens do affect warfarin.
Question 2: Warfarin and Over-the-Counter Pain Relief
A client who takes warfarin calls the clinic about low back pain after gardening and asks which over-the-counter medication is safest. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. "Ibuprofen is fine as long as you take it with food."
- B. "Naproxen is the best choice because you only need it twice a day."
- C. "Aspirin is safe because it is a mild pain reliever."
- D. "Acetaminophen is usually the preferred choice, but check with your provider or pharmacist about the amount, and avoid ibuprofen, naproxen and aspirin unless your provider approves them."
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: D. "Acetaminophen is usually the preferred choice, but check with your provider or pharmacist about the amount, and avoid ibuprofen, naproxen and aspirin unless your provider approves them."
Rationale: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen and naproxen, and aspirin, inhibit platelet function and can irritate the stomach lining. Combined with warfarin they raise the risk of serious bleeding, especially GI bleeding. Acetaminophen is generally the preferred over-the-counter analgesic for clients on warfarin, but regular or high intake can raise the INR in some clients, so the amount should be confirmed with the provider or pharmacist and any change in use reported. Options A, B and C are wrong because each involves a drug that adds to bleeding risk; taking ibuprofen with food does not remove the antiplatelet effect, and aspirin is an antiplatelet drug, not simply a mild pain reliever.
Question 3: Anticoagulant Reversal Agents
A nurse is reviewing reversal agents with a group of new graduates. Which pairing of anticoagulant and reversal agent is correct?
- A. Unfractionated heparin: protamine sulfate
- B. Warfarin: protamine sulfate
- C. Dabigatran: vitamin K (phytonadione)
- D. Enoxaparin: idarucizumab
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: A. Unfractionated heparin: protamine sulfate
Rationale: Protamine sulfate binds unfractionated heparin and neutralizes it; it only partly reverses low-molecular-weight heparins such as enoxaparin. Warfarin is reversed with vitamin K (phytonadione), and for serious bleeding a prothrombin complex concentrate may be given as well, according to the prescriber and facility protocol. Idarucizumab is the specific reversal agent for dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor. The factor Xa inhibitors apixaban and rivaroxaban have their own reversal options, chosen by the provider and facility protocol. Option B is wrong because protamine does not reverse warfarin. Option C is wrong because vitamin K does not reverse dabigatran. Option D is wrong because idarucizumab is specific to dabigatran and has no effect on enoxaparin.
Question 4: Enoxaparin and Epidural Catheters
A client is 1 day post-op after a knee replacement, has an epidural catheter for pain control, and is receiving enoxaparin for DVT prevention. The client reports new numbness and weakness in both legs that was not present 2 hours ago. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Reposition the client and recheck sensation in 1 hour
- B. Reduce the epidural infusion rate and document the finding
- C. Notify the provider or anesthesia team immediately and hold the next enoxaparin dose until the client is evaluated
- D. Encourage the client to walk with assistance to improve circulation
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: C. Notify the provider or anesthesia team immediately and hold the next enoxaparin dose until the client is evaluated
Rationale: Low-molecular-weight heparins such as enoxaparin carry a boxed warning for epidural or spinal hematoma in clients with neuraxial anesthesia or an epidural catheter. A hematoma can compress the spinal cord and cause permanent paralysis, so new or worsening numbness, leg weakness, back pain, or bowel or bladder dysfunction must be reported immediately. Prompt imaging and surgical decompression may be needed. Anticoagulant timing around epidural placement and removal follows the facility protocol and anesthesia guidance. Option A is wrong because waiting delays treatment of a time-sensitive emergency. Option B is wrong because the local anesthetic could explain some numbness, but a new bilateral motor change in a client on enoxaparin must be assumed to be a hematoma until proven otherwise, and the decision belongs to the anesthesia team. Option D is wrong because walking a client with new leg weakness creates a fall risk and does not address the cause.
Question 5: Clopidogrel After a Coronary Stent
A client had a drug-eluting coronary stent placed 2 months ago and takes clopidogrel and low-dose aspirin. The client says, "My dentist wants to pull a tooth next week, so I'll just stop the clopidogrel for a while beforehand." Which response by the nurse is best?
- A. "That is a good plan. Stop it 3 days before the procedure."
- B. "Please do not stop clopidogrel on your own. Ask your dentist to talk with your cardiologist before the procedure."
- C. "Stop the aspirin instead and keep taking the clopidogrel."
- D. "You can stop both medications until the tooth has healed."
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: B. "Please do not stop clopidogrel on your own. Ask your dentist to talk with your cardiologist before the procedure."
Rationale: After a coronary stent, dual antiplatelet therapy (a P2Y12 inhibitor such as clopidogrel plus aspirin) prevents stent thrombosis, a clot inside the stent that can cause a heart attack or death. The risk is highest in the months after placement, and stopping either drug early without a plan raises that risk sharply. Many dental procedures can be done without stopping antiplatelet therapy, using local measures to control bleeding. Any decision to pause, and for how long, belongs to the cardiologist in coordination with the dentist. Options A, C and D are wrong because they all involve the client stopping an antiplatelet drug without the cardiologist's direction; Option A also gives a fixed number of days that is not universal.
Question 6: Alteplase During a Stroke
A client with an acute ischemic stroke is receiving IV alteplase. Thirty minutes into the infusion, the client reports a sudden, severe headache and vomits. Blood pressure has risen from 168/92 to 196/110 mm Hg. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Give an analgesic for the headache and recheck the blood pressure in 15 minutes
- B. Slow the alteplase infusion rate and continue to monitor
- C. Give an antiemetic and raise the head of the bed
- D. Stop the alteplase infusion and notify the provider or stroke team immediately
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: D. Stop the alteplase infusion and notify the provider or stroke team immediately
Rationale: A sudden severe headache, new nausea and vomiting, acute hypertension or a decline in neurological status during or after thrombolytic therapy suggests intracranial hemorrhage, the most feared complication of alteplase. Current AHA/ASA stroke guidelines direct that the infusion be stopped and the provider notified at once; an emergency head CT and blood work are expected next, and blood pressure is managed according to the stroke protocol. Option A is wrong because treating the headache masks a warning sign and delays action. Option B is wrong because slowing the infusion still delivers the thrombolytic; it should be stopped. Option C is wrong because positioning and an antiemetic do not address the likely bleed.
Question 7: Heparin and Warfarin Overlap
A client admitted with a deep vein thrombosis is receiving an IV heparin infusion, and oral warfarin was started yesterday. The client asks, "Why do I need two blood thinners?" Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
- A. "Warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect, so the heparin protects you until your INR has reached the target range your provider sets."
- B. "The two drugs work together to dissolve the clot in your leg faster."
- C. "Heparin protects you from the side effects of warfarin."
- D. "You need both drugs for the rest of your life to prevent another clot."
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: A. "Warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect, so the heparin protects you until your INR has reached the target range your provider sets."
Rationale: Warfarin reduces the production of new vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but factors already in the blood take days to clear, so its full anticoagulant effect is delayed. Heparin acts immediately. The two are overlapped for several days and until the INR is in the therapeutic range the prescriber has set for that client, then heparin is stopped. Option B is wrong because neither heparin nor warfarin dissolves an existing clot; they prevent the clot from growing and new clots from forming while the body breaks the clot down. Option C is wrong because heparin does not protect against warfarin side effects. Option D is wrong because heparin is a short-term drug here, and the length of warfarin therapy depends on the cause of the clot and the prescriber's plan.
Question 8: Dabigatran Capsules
A client is prescribed dabigatran capsules. The client says, "I have trouble swallowing big pills." Which instruction should the nurse give?
- A. "Open the capsule and sprinkle the pellets on applesauce."
- B. "Put a week of capsules in a pill organizer so they are easy to reach."
- C. "Swallow the capsule whole with a full glass of water. Don't open, crush or chew it, and talk with your provider if you can't swallow it."
- D. "Chew the capsule well before swallowing it."
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: C. "Swallow the capsule whole with a full glass of water. Don't open, crush or chew it, and talk with your provider if you can't swallow it."
Rationale: The labeling for dabigatran states the capsules must be swallowed whole. Opening, chewing or crushing them can greatly increase the amount of drug absorbed and raise the risk of bleeding. Taking it with a full glass of water also helps reduce stomach upset. Dabigatran capsules should be kept in the original bottle or blister pack to protect them from moisture, which is why Option B is wrong; check product labeling for specific storage instructions. If the client cannot swallow the capsule, the prescriber may choose a different anticoagulant. Options A and D are wrong because opening or chewing the capsule increases absorption.
Question 9: Head Injury on an Anticoagulant
An 81-year-old client who takes rivaroxaban for atrial fibrillation tripped and hit their head at home this morning. The daughter calls because the client now has a worsening headache and seems more confused than usual. What is the nurse's best advice?
- A. "Give acetaminophen for the headache and watch for 24 hours."
- B. "Call 911 or get to the emergency department now. Bring the medication list."
- C. "Skip tomorrow's rivaroxaban dose and call the clinic if the headache gets worse."
- D. "Have the client lie down in a dark room and rest."
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: B. "Call 911 or get to the emergency department now. Bring the medication list."
Rationale: Clients taking anticoagulants are at higher risk of bleeding inside the skull after even a minor head injury, and older adults are especially vulnerable. A worsening headache and new or increasing confusion are signs of a possible intracranial hemorrhage, which needs emergency imaging and, if confirmed, possible reversal of the anticoagulant. Bringing the medication list (including the time of the last dose) helps the emergency team decide on reversal. Options A and D are wrong because they delay emergency care for a neurological change. Option C is wrong because holding a future dose does nothing for a bleed that may already be happening, and the decision about the anticoagulant belongs to the provider.
Question 10: Warfarin and Pregnancy
A 29-year-old client taking warfarin after a pulmonary embolism tells the nurse at a follow-up visit, "My period is 2 weeks late, and I think I might be pregnant." What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Reassure the client that warfarin is safe during pregnancy
- B. Tell the client to double the folic acid in her prenatal vitamin
- C. Advise the client to stop warfarin today and wait for her next INR check
- D. Notify the provider promptly so pregnancy testing and the anticoagulation plan can be addressed right away
Show Answer & Rationale
Answer: D. Notify the provider promptly so pregnancy testing and the anticoagulation plan can be addressed right away
Rationale: Warfarin crosses the placenta and can cause birth defects (warfarin embryopathy), fetal bleeding and pregnancy loss. It is generally avoided in pregnancy, with rare exceptions such as some clients with mechanical heart valves, decided by specialists. A possible pregnancy needs prompt confirmation, and the provider will usually switch the client to a low-molecular-weight heparin, which does not cross the placenta. Clients of childbearing potential on warfarin should be counseled about reliable contraception. Option A is wrong because warfarin is not considered safe in pregnancy. Option B is wrong because folic acid does not prevent warfarin's effects. Option C is wrong because stopping all anticoagulation on her own would leave her unprotected from another clot; the change must be directed by the provider.
Pharmacology Practice Tests
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Clozapine, NMS, acute dystonia, MAOIs, bupropion, benzodiazepines, valproate, olanzapine, ADHD stimulants and disulfiram.
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Montelukast, tiotropium, LABA combination inhalers, theophylline, benzonatate, PPIs, sucralfate, metoclopramide, ondansetron and misoprostol.
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