This free ATI TEAS 7 practice test has 25 questions from all four sections of the real exam: Reading, Math, Science, and English and Language Usage. Click an answer to see right away if you got it, plus a rationale for every option. Your score shows at the end.
The test follows the order of the real TEAS. Each section starts easier and gets harder. Have scratch paper ready for the math questions.
Read the passage, then answer the questions that follow.
Many people believe that bread goes stale because it dries out. Moisture loss plays a part, but it is not the main cause. Bread is made largely of starch, and during baking, heat and water cause the starch molecules to loosen and spread apart, giving the inside of the loaf its soft texture. As the loaf cools and sits, those molecules slowly pull back together and form tight, orderly crystals. This process, called retrogradation, squeezes water out of the starch and leaves the bread firm and crumbly, even when the loaf is tightly wrapped.
Temperature strongly affects the speed of this change. Retrogradation happens fastest at temperatures just above freezing, which is why bread kept in a refrigerator often turns stale sooner than bread left on the counter. Freezing, on the other hand, nearly halts the process. Gently reheating a stale slice can also undo some of the damage, because heat loosens the crystals again. The softness does not last, however. Once the warm slice cools, it firms up even faster than before.
Question 1 of 25 Reading
According to the passage, where does bread usually become stale most quickly?
- On a kitchen counter in a sealed bag. Incorrect. The passage says refrigerated bread often turns stale sooner than bread left on the counter, so the counter is slower, not faster.
- In a refrigerator. Correct. The passage states that retrogradation happens fastest just above freezing, which is why refrigerated bread often turns stale sooner than bread on the counter. A refrigerator keeps bread in exactly that temperature range.
- In a freezer. Incorrect. The passage says freezing nearly halts retrogradation, so a freezer slows staling rather than speeding it up.
- In a warm oven. Incorrect. The passage says heat loosens the starch crystals, so warmth temporarily softens bread rather than making it stale.
Use the passage above.
Question 2 of 25 Reading
Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?
- Bread stays fresh longest when it is wrapped tightly and refrigerated.. Incorrect. The passage says bread stales even when tightly wrapped and that refrigerator temperatures speed staling, so this claim contradicts the text.
- Moisture loss is the only reason that bread becomes firm and crumbly.. Incorrect. The passage directly says moisture loss plays a part but is not the main cause of staling.
- Reheating stale bread is the best way to keep it soft for several days.. Incorrect. The passage says reheated bread firms up even faster once it cools, so reheating is only a short-term fix.
- Bread stales mainly as its starch re-forms crystals, a process temperature affects.. Correct. The first paragraph explains that staling is caused mainly by starch molecules re-forming crystals, and the second paragraph explains how temperature speeds, slows, or briefly reverses that change. This statement covers both paragraphs.
Use the passage above.
Question 3 of 25 Reading
As used in the second paragraph, the word “halts” most nearly means
- stops. Correct. The passage contrasts the fast staling in a refrigerator with freezing, which “nearly halts” the process. To halt something is to stop it, so freezing almost stops retrogradation.
- speeds. Incorrect. Speeding up the process is the opposite of the contrast the author draws with the words “on the other hand.”
- reverses. Incorrect. The passage uses reheating, not freezing, as the way to undo some of the staling, so “reverses” does not fit this sentence.
- weakens. Incorrect. To weaken something is to make it less strong, not to bring a process to a stop.
Read the passage, then answer the questions that follow.
Walk across almost any college campus or city park, and you will probably notice a strip of bare, packed dirt cutting across the grass. Planners call these shortcuts desire paths. They form when enough people decide that the paved route is not the most convenient way to reach where they are going.
For decades, many groundskeepers treated desire paths as a nuisance. They put up fences, planted shrubs, or posted signs asking people to stay on the sidewalk. These efforts rarely worked for long. Walkers simply found a way around the barrier, and a new path appeared nearby.
Some planners now take the opposite approach. At a few universities, crews have waited a full season after a new building opened before paving any walkways. Once the grass had been worn into a pattern, the crews poured concrete along the routes that people had already chosen. Supporters say this method saves money, since fewer walkways need to be torn up and rebuilt later. More important, it treats the people who use a space as experts on how that space should work. A desire path, in this view, is not a sign of bad behavior but a free and honest survey.
Question 4 of 25 Reading
The author most likely mentions the fences, shrubs, and signs in the second paragraph in order to
- explain how universities lower the cost of lawn care. Incorrect. Saving money is discussed in the third paragraph in connection with paving worn routes, not with fences or shrubs.
- argue that walkers should always obey posted rules. Incorrect. The author never argues that walkers should obey signs and later describes desire paths as an honest survey rather than bad behavior.
- show that trying to block desire paths often failed. Correct. Right after listing the fences, shrubs, and signs, the author says these efforts rarely worked because walkers went around them. The examples set up the contrast with the newer approach in the third paragraph.
- describe the materials used to build paved walkways. Incorrect. Fences, shrubs, and signs are barriers placed to keep people off the grass, not materials used to build walkways.
Use the passage above.
Question 5 of 25 Reading
Based on the passage, the author would most likely agree with which statement?
- Desire paths damage lawns and should be fenced off as soon as they appear.. Incorrect. The author explains that fencing rarely worked and presents desire paths as useful information, not as damage to be blocked.
- Paved walkways are rarely needed on college campuses or in city parks.. Incorrect. The universities described still poured concrete walkways; they simply chose the routes after watching how people walked.
- Designers should observe how people move through a space before paving it.. Correct. The author describes waiting a season and paving the routes people already chose, and calls users experts on how a space should work. This shows support for observing real movement before building.
- Most people create desire paths because they enjoy ignoring posted rules.. Incorrect. The author says paths form because people find the paved route inconvenient and states that a desire path is not a sign of bad behavior.
Use the passage above.
Question 6 of 25 Reading
Which finding, if true, would most strengthen the supporters’ claim that waiting to pave walkways saves money?
- Campuses that paved worn routes later spent less on removing and replacing walkways.. Correct. The supporters claim the method saves money because fewer walkways must be torn up and rebuilt. Evidence that these campuses actually spent less on removing and replacing walkways directly supports that cost claim.
- Students at one university said that they preferred the look of grassy open lawns.. Incorrect. Students’ taste in lawns says nothing about whether waiting to pave lowers costs.
- Fences placed around one city park lasted longer when made of metal than of wood.. Incorrect. The durability of fence materials relates to the older blocking approach, not to the cost of the newer paving method.
- Most desire paths in city parks are shorter than the paved routes that they replace.. Incorrect. This finding helps explain why desire paths form, but it gives no information about money saved by waiting to pave.
Question 7 of 25 Math
A clinic saw 260 patients on Monday, and 35% of them were children. How many of the patients were children?
- 74. Incorrect. This comes from dividing 260 by 3.5 (about 74.3) instead of multiplying 260 by 0.35.
- 169. Incorrect. This is 65% of 260 (0.65 x 260 = 169), the number of patients who were not children.
- 9.1. Incorrect. This comes from misplacing the decimal point, using 0.035 instead of 0.35 (0.035 x 260 = 9.1). A number of patients must also be a whole number.
- 91. Correct. Convert the percent to a decimal and multiply: 35% = 0.35, and 0.35 x 260 = 91 children.
Question 8 of 25 Math
What is 2 3/4 – 1 5/6?
- 1 1/12. Incorrect. This results from subtracting the whole numbers to get 1 and then subtracting the smaller fraction from the larger one (10/12 – 9/12) instead of regrouping.
- 11/12. Correct. Convert to improper fractions with a common denominator: 2 3/4 = 33/12 and 1 5/6 = 22/12. Then 33/12 – 22/12 = 11/12.
- 4 7/12. Incorrect. This is the sum of the two numbers (33/12 + 22/12 = 55/12 = 4 7/12), not the difference.
- 1/12. Incorrect. This subtracts only the fractions (10/12 – 9/12) and ignores the whole numbers and the need to regroup.
Question 9 of 25 Math
Solve for x: 3(x – 4) + 2x = 2x + 9
- 7. Correct. Distribute: 3x – 12 + 2x = 2x + 9, so 5x – 12 = 2x + 9. Subtract 2x: 3x – 12 = 9. Add 12: 3x = 21. Divide by 3: x = 7. Check: 3(3) + 14 = 23 and 14 + 9 = 23.
- 4 1/3. Incorrect. This comes from multiplying only the x by 3 and not the 4, which gives 3x – 4 = 9 and x = 13/3.
- 21. Incorrect. This is the value of 3x. The last step, dividing both sides by 3, was skipped.
- -1. Incorrect. This comes from subtracting 12 instead of adding it when isolating 3x, which gives 3x = -3.
Question 10 of 25 Math
A runner finishes a 5-kilometer race in 25 minutes. What is her average speed in kilometers per hour?
- 0.2 km/h. Incorrect. This is the speed in kilometers per minute (5 / 25 = 0.2). It must be multiplied by 60 to convert to kilometers per hour.
- 12 km/h. Correct. 25 minutes = 25 / 60 hour. Speed = distance / time = 5 / (25/60) = 5 x 60 / 25 = 12 km/h. Equivalently, 0.2 km per minute x 60 minutes = 12 km/h.
- 5 km/h. Incorrect. This is the race distance, not the speed. It would be correct only if the race took exactly one hour.
- 125 km/h. Incorrect. This multiplies the distance by the time (5 x 25) instead of dividing the distance by the time in hours.
Question 11 of 25 Math
A student has $150 to spend on used textbooks. Each book costs $38, and there is a single $12 shipping charge for the whole order. What is the greatest number of books the student can buy?
- 2. Incorrect. Two books cost 2(38) + 12 = $88, but the student can afford one more book and still stay within $150.
- 4. Incorrect. Four books cost 4(38) + 12 = $164, which is more than $150. This answer comes from rounding 150 / 38 (about 3.9) up and ignoring shipping.
- 3. Correct. Write 38n + 12 is less than or equal to 150. Subtract 12: 38n is less than or equal to 138, so n is less than or equal to about 3.63. Only whole books can be bought, so the greatest number is 3, for a total of $126.
- 5. Incorrect. Five books cost 5(38) + 12 = $202, which is well over the $150 budget.
Question 12 of 25 Math
A rectangular garden has a perimeter of 46 meters and a length of 14 meters. What is the area of the garden?
- 322 m². Incorrect. This uses half the perimeter (23 m) as the width. The two lengths must also be subtracted: 23 – 14 = 9 m.
- 252 m². Incorrect. This subtracts both lengths (46 – 28 = 18) but forgets to divide by 2 to split the remainder between the two widths.
- 644 m². Incorrect. This multiplies the length by the perimeter (14 x 46). Area is length times width, not length times perimeter.
- 126 m². Correct. Using P = 2l + 2w: 46 = 2(14) + 2w, so 2w = 18 and w = 9 m. Area = length x width = 14 x 9 = 126 m².
Question 13 of 25 Science
Which skull bone moves at a synovial joint to open and close the mouth during chewing?
- Maxilla. Incorrect. The maxilla forms the upper jaw and is fused to other skull bones by sutures, so it does not move during chewing.
- Zygomatic bone. Incorrect. The zygomatic bone forms the cheek and is joined to neighboring bones by immovable sutures.
- Mandible. Correct. The mandible, or lower jaw, meets the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint, a freely movable synovial joint. The mandible is the bone that moves at this joint, opening and closing the mouth for chewing and speech, while the other bones listed stay fixed.
- Temporal bone. Incorrect. The temporal bone forms the fixed socket of the jaw joint and is held in place by sutures; the bone that moves within that joint is the mandible.
Question 14 of 25 Science
In a forest ecosystem, which organisms break down dead leaves and animal remains and return nutrients to the soil?
- Decomposers, such as fungi and bacteria. Correct. Decomposers digest dead organic matter and release nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus back into the soil. Producers can then reuse those nutrients, which keeps matter cycling through the ecosystem.
- Producers, such as ferns and oak trees. Incorrect. Producers make their own food by photosynthesis and take nutrients up from the soil rather than breaking down dead material.
- Primary consumers, such as deer. Incorrect. Primary consumers are herbivores that eat living plants; they do not break down dead remains to recycle nutrients.
- Secondary consumers, such as owls. Incorrect. Secondary consumers eat other animals; they are predators, not the organisms that break down dead matter.
Question 15 of 25 Science
Which structure of the eye controls how much light enters by changing the size of the pupil?
- Retina. Incorrect. The retina lines the back of the eye and contains the photoreceptors that detect light; it does not regulate how much light enters.
- Iris. Correct. The iris is the colored ring of tissue around the pupil, and it contains two sets of smooth muscle. Its muscles constrict the pupil in bright light and dilate it in dim light, controlling the amount of light that reaches the retina.
- Cornea. Incorrect. The cornea is the clear front covering that bends incoming light, but it cannot change the size of the pupil.
- Sclera. Incorrect. The sclera is the tough white outer layer that protects and shapes the eye; it does not control light entry.
Question 16 of 25 Science
How many moles are in 88 g of carbon dioxide (CO2)? (Atomic masses: C = 12.0, O = 16.0)
- 0.50 mol. Incorrect. This comes from dividing the molar mass by the given mass (44 / 88). Moles equal mass divided by molar mass.
- 3.1 mol. Incorrect. This uses a molar mass of 28 g/mol, which counts only one oxygen atom (88 / 28 = about 3.1).
- 7.3 mol. Incorrect. This divides by the mass of carbon alone (88 / 12 = about 7.3) and leaves out both oxygen atoms.
- 2.0 mol. Correct. The molar mass of CO2 is 12.0 + 2(16.0) = 44.0 g/mol. Moles = mass / molar mass = 88 g / 44.0 g/mol = 2.0 mol.
Question 17 of 25 Science
A stroke damages the primary motor cortex in the left cerebral hemisphere. Which finding is most expected?
- Loss of vision in both eyes. Incorrect. Vision is processed mainly in the occipital lobe, and damage to one motor cortex would not be expected to cause blindness in both eyes.
- Weakness of the right arm and leg. Correct. Most motor fibers from each hemisphere cross to the opposite side in the medulla oblongata before descending the spinal cord. Damage to the left motor cortex therefore causes weakness on the right side of the body.
- Weakness of the left arm and leg. Incorrect. This would be expected from damage to the right motor cortex, because each hemisphere controls movement on the opposite side of the body.
- Loss of hearing in the left ear. Incorrect. Hearing is processed in the temporal lobe, and the motor cortex controls voluntary movement, not hearing.
Question 18 of 25 Science
A student placed 40 radish seeds in each of four dishes and watered each dish with a different salt solution. After 5 days, the percentage of seeds that sprouted was: 0% salt, 95%; 0.5% salt, 80%; 1% salt, 50%; 2% salt, 10%. Which conclusion is best supported by these data?
- Salt water makes radish seedlings grow taller after they sprout.. Incorrect. The student measured only whether seeds sprouted, not how tall the seedlings grew, so the data cannot support a claim about height.
- No radish seeds would sprout at all in a 3% salt solution.. Incorrect. A 3% solution was not tested. Predicting exactly zero sprouting goes beyond the data collected.
- Within the range tested, sprouting decreased as salt increased.. Correct. As salt concentration rose from 0% to 2%, the percentage of seeds that sprouted fell from 95% to 10%. The conclusion stays within the conditions actually tested.
- Salt affects the sprouting of every plant species the same way.. Incorrect. Only radish seeds were tested, so the results cannot be generalized to every plant species.
Question 19 of 25 Science
During vigorous exercise, working skeletal muscle produces more carbon dioxide, becomes more acidic, and warms up. How do these changes affect hemoglobin in the nearby capillaries?
- Hemoglobin releases oxygen more readily to the muscle.. Correct. Higher carbon dioxide, lower pH, and higher temperature all lower hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen; the effect of carbon dioxide and acidity is called the Bohr effect. Hemoglobin therefore unloads more oxygen in the tissues where active muscle needs it most.
- Hemoglobin binds oxygen more tightly and holds onto it.. Incorrect. Tighter binding would keep oxygen in the blood and starve the working muscle; these conditions cause the opposite effect.
- Hemoglobin stops carrying oxygen and carries only carbon dioxide.. Incorrect. Hemoglobin keeps carrying oxygen; it simply releases more of it in active tissue. Most carbon dioxide is also carried in the blood as bicarbonate rather than bound to hemoglobin.
- Hemoglobin’s attraction to oxygen does not change at all.. Incorrect. Carbon dioxide, acidity, and temperature all change how strongly hemoglobin holds oxygen, so its affinity does shift.
Question 20 of 25 English and Language Usage
An applicant is writing an email to the director of a nursing program. Which sentence is most appropriate in tone for this message?
- Hey, just checking if you got all my application stuff yet.. Incorrect. “Hey” and “stuff” are casual words that are not appropriate for a professional email to a program director.
- I’m super excited to maybe be part of your awesome program!. Incorrect. Slang such as “super” and “awesome” makes this sentence too informal for a professional message.
- Can u let me know when the interviews are happening?. Incorrect. Text-message spelling such as “u” is unprofessional in a formal email.
- Please let me know whether my application is complete.. Correct. This sentence is polite, clear, and uses standard formal language with no slang or abbreviations, which suits a professional email to a program director.
Question 21 of 25 English and Language Usage
Which word is spelled correctly?
- maintainance. Incorrect. The correct spelling is “maintenance”; the second syllable is spelled t-e-n, not t-a-i-n.
- rhythym. Incorrect. The correct spelling is “rhythm,” which has no vowel between the t-h and the m.
- acommodate. Incorrect. The correct spelling is “accommodate,” with a double c and a double m.
- liaison. Correct. “Liaison” is spelled with an i before and after the a: l-i-a-i-s-o-n. It means a person who connects or communicates between groups.
Question 22 of 25 English and Language Usage
Which sentence uses pronouns correctly?
- The instructor handed the study guides to Priya and I.. Incorrect. “I” is a subject pronoun, but here the pronoun is the object of the preposition “to,” so the object form is required.
- The instructor handed the study guides to Priya and me.. Correct. The pronoun is the object of the preposition “to,” so the object pronoun “me” is required. Removing “Priya and” shows the test: “handed the study guides to me” is correct.
- The instructor handed the study guides to Priya and myself.. Incorrect. “Myself” is a reflexive pronoun and should be used only when the subject of the sentence also performs the action, as in “I quizzed myself.”
- The instructor handed the study guides to she and Priya.. Incorrect. “She” is a subject pronoun; after the preposition “to,” the object form “her” is needed.
Question 23 of 25 English and Language Usage
Which verb correctly completes the sentence? One of the patients who arrived early this morning ___ asking to speak with the charge nurse.
- is. Correct. The subject of the main clause is “One,” which is singular, so it takes the singular verb “is.” The phrase “of the patients who arrived early this morning” describes the subject but does not change its number.
- are. Incorrect. “Are” is plural and agrees with “patients,” which is the object of a preposition, not the subject.
- were. Incorrect. “Were” is plural and agrees with “patients” rather than the singular subject “One.”
- have been. Incorrect. “Have” is the plural form of the helping verb, so “have been” agrees with “patients” rather than with the singular subject “One,” which would need “has been.”
Question 24 of 25 English and Language Usage
Read the sentence. Despite failing the math section twice, Jordan remained tenacious and passed it on her third attempt. Which word is closest in meaning to “tenacious”?
- anxious. Incorrect. “Anxious” means worried or nervous; the sentence emphasizes that Jordan kept trying, not how she felt.
- careless. Incorrect. “Careless” means not paying attention, which does not fit someone who kept working until she passed.
- persistent. Correct. “Tenacious” means holding firmly to a goal and not giving up. The clue “despite failing” and passing on the third attempt shows that Jordan kept trying.
- talented. Incorrect. “Talented” describes natural ability, but the context stresses repeated effort after failure rather than skill.
Question 25 of 25 English and Language Usage
Which sentence is punctuated correctly?
- The lab results were delayed, however; the physician reviewed them before noon.. Incorrect. The semicolon must come before “however,” not after it, because “however” begins the second independent clause.
- The lab results were delayed; however, the physician reviewed them before noon.. Correct. Two independent clauses joined by the conjunctive adverb “however” need a semicolon before the adverb and a comma after it.
- The lab results were delayed; however the physician, reviewed them before noon.. Incorrect. The comma after “however” is missing, and the comma after “physician” wrongly separates the subject from its verb.
- The lab results; were delayed, however, the physician reviewed them before noon.. Incorrect. The semicolon splits the subject from its verb, and joining two independent clauses with only commas creates a comma splice.
Your score
Want more practice? TEAS 7 Prep has 1,040 questions and a full-length timed practice test.
What is on the TEAS 7?
The ATI TEAS 7 has 170 multiple-choice and alternate-format questions in four sections, and you have 209 minutes in total. Twenty of the questions are unscored pretest items, but you will not know which ones.
- Reading: 45 questions in 55 minutes. Key ideas and details, craft and structure, and using information from more than one source.
- Math: 38 questions in 57 minutes. Numbers and algebra, measurement and data. An on-screen calculator is provided.
- Science: 50 questions in 60 minutes. Human anatomy and physiology is the biggest part, plus biology, chemistry, and scientific reasoning.
- English and Language Usage: 37 questions in 37 minutes. Grammar, punctuation, spelling, and using vocabulary in context.
Each nursing program sets its own required TEAS score, so check the score your school asks for.
Tips for passing the TEAS
- Spend the most study time on anatomy and physiology. It makes up a large share of the science section.
- For reading, find the line in the passage that proves your answer before you choose it.
- Practice math without rushing, then with a timer. The math section gives you about a minute and a half per question.
- The English section is fast, about one minute per question, so practice timed grammar sets.
- Take full timed practice tests so 209 minutes feels normal on test day.
Want the full TEAS practice?
TEAS 7 Prep on NurseStudy Prep has 1,040 practice questions across all four sections, a full-length 170-question timed practice test, and a study guide for every section. Start with a 2-day free trial.
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